2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: RDCR08201
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level One)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

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NO.2 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

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NO.3 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

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NO.4 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

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NO.6 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.7 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

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NO.8 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

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NO.9 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

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NO.10 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

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NO.12 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.13 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

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NO.14 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.15 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

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NO.16 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

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NO.18 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

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NO.19 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

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NO.20 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

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NO.21 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

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NO.22 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

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NO.23 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

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NO.24 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

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NO.25 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

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NO.26 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

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NO.27 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

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NO.28 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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NO.29 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.30 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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Exam Code: SABE501V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 - Update.)
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Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.3 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.5 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

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NO.6 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.7 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.8 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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NO.10 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.11 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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NO.13 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.14 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

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NO.15 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.18 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.19 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.20 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: QAWI301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web Intelligence XI 3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The
Data Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of
the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three methods can you use to combine queries using the Web Intelligence Rich Client?
(Choose three.)
A. UNION
B. MINUS
C. UNION ALL
D. INTERSECT
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 A variable in your report contains the statement:
=If[State] = "California" Then [Sales revenue] * 1.05 Else If[State] = "Colorado" Then [Sales
revenue] *
1.1 Else If[State] InList ("DC";"Texas ") Then [Sales revenue] * 1.15 Else If[State] =
"Massachusetts"
Then [Sales revenue] * 1.18 Else [Sales revenue]
Sales revenue for Florida is $1,879,159. Which rate is applied to the Florida revenue by the
formula?
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.15
E. 1.18
Answer: A

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NO.4 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with tracked data changes.
You wish to change the color of the tracked data. You however cannot change the format of the
tracked data. What should you do to enable formatting of the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Resave the document with data tracking formats enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have a regional sales report with State, City and Sales Revenue dimensions. You want to
create a variable that excludes State from the output context. Which output statement should you
use?
A. In([State])
B. Out([State])
C. ForAll([State])
D. ForEach([State])
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true of an output context operator?
A. It is placed within the brackets of the dimension list.
B. It is placed outside of the brackets of the dimension list.
C. It is placed within the brackets of the aggregation function.
D. It is placed outside of the brackets of the aggregation function.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You want to force the calculation context for a variable in a large report with many
dimensions. Which operator allows you to add a dimension to the default context?
A. In
B. All
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: D

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NO.9 How much impact does data tracking have on the data size of a Web Intelligence document
(WID)compared to the same document without data tracking?
A. It will stay the same size.
B. It will increase two times.
C. It will increase three times.
D. It will increase by 50% on each refresh.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where are contexts created?
A. In a report
B. In a universe
C. In a derived table
D. At the database level
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 050-V71x-CSESECURID
Exam Name: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Systems Engineer 7.1x Exam)
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Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 If the RSA RADIUS server is NOT installed at the time of the RSA Authentication
Manager software installation and the RADIUS function is needed at a later date,
(Choose two)
A. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server through the Operations Console.
B. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server using the add_rad_svr command
line utility.
C. it can be installed on a separate host and connected to the existing Authentication
Manager server.
D. Authentication Agents can be configured to proxy RADIUS transactions without the
need for a RADIUS server
E. it cannot be added to the Authentication Manager server without uninstalling then reinstalling
the server software.
Answer: C E

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NO.2 If an organization's general security policy specifies that certain RSA SecurID tokens will
be used without a PIN (tokencode only), this can be accomplished by editing the
parameters
A. in the records for individual tokens.
B. in the Realm Authentication Policy.
C. in the Security Domain Token Policy.
D. in the Security Domain Password Policy.
Answer: A

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NO.3 As part of the Primary server installation, the installer automatically backs up certain files
in the RSA Authentication Manager/backup/ directory. These files
A. include the system private key file.
B. hold the contents of the embedded database.
C. are used to install Replica servers and Server Nodes.
D. are deleted after the Primary services successfully start.
Answer: A

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NO.4 RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user's password is not
changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security
Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
Answer: C

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NO.6 To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA
Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
"cn=securid" to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When planning an RSA SecurID system deployment, the Agents that will be required are
dependent on
A. the type of authenticator assigned to users in the system.
B. the variety and type of entry points to a given network or protected resource.
C. the total number of users that exist in all Authentication Manager Security Domains.
D. the communication (port) configurations of any firewalls separating Agent devices and
authentication servers.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is true about the RSA RADIUS Server in an RSA
Authentication Manager version 7.1 environment?
A. A single RADIUS server can be configured to support multiple realms across a single
Authentication Manager deployment.
B. Once the RADIUS server is installed in an Authentication Manager environment, all
users default to using the RADIUS protocol for authentication.
C. If RADIUS is integrated with an Authentication Manager deployment, all users who
authenticate via RADIUS must be issued an RSA SecurID token.
D. If a RADIUS server is not installed at the same time as a Primary or Replica server, it
can NOT be added later without uninstalling and re-installing the Primary or Replica
software.
Answer: D

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NO.9 When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user's account must specify 'sdshell' to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
"securid_pam" as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are
contained in the pam.conf file.
Answer: D

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NO.10 If manual load balancing has just been set up for an Authentication Agent and it appears
that the Agent is not contacting the desired servers, it might be helpful to verify the
contents of the
A. sdopts.rec file.
B. sdconf.rec file.
C. sdstatus.12 file.
D. sdagent.rec file.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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NO.4 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.9 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.11 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.16 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.17 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.18 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

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NO.19 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

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NO.21 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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NO.22 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.23 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are
worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk
identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly
identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow
participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.24 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.26 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.28 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.29 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.1 You are working with Anna on your project to determine and map the probability distributions of risk
within the project. You have indicated that you will use the uniform distribution method for a portion of the
project. Which part of your project is most likely to have a uniform risk distribution?
A. Late completion stages of a project
B. Project phases that deal with "cutover" technologies
C. Early concept stage of design
D. Project initiating
Answer: C

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NO.2 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You want to create a visual diagram, which can depict
the resources that will be used within the project. Which of the following diagrams will you create to
accomplish the task?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. RACI chart
Answer: C

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NO.3 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders,
some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about
risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be
the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?
A. Risk Response Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Project Management Plan
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the project manager of the GYH project for your organization. Management has asked you to
begin identifying risks and to use an information gathering technique. Which one of the following risk
identification approaches is an information gathering technique?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assumptions analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Documentation reviews
Answer: A

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NO.5 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy
C. Resource Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
Answer: D

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NO.6 Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive
risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a
new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event.
What will Jenny reply to you?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Seven
D. Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on
some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a
probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
B. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
C. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
D. Information on prior, similar projects
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are a risk auditor for your company. You are reviewing the contract types a project manager has
used in her project. Of the following, which contract type has the most risk for the project manager as a
buyer?
A. Cost plus percentage of costs
B. Time and material
C. Cost plus incentive fee
D. Fixed-price, incentive fee
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which risk response is acceptable for both positive and negative risk events?
A. Transferring
B. Acceptance
C. Sharing
D. Enhancing
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are project manager for ABD project. You, with your team, are working on the following activities:
Probabilistic analysis of a project.
Probability of achieving cost and time objectives.
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results.
On which of the following processes are you working on?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Identify Risks
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your organization has named you the project manager of the JKN Project. This project has a BAC of
$1,500,000 and it is expected to last 18 months. Management has agreed that if the schedule baseline
has a variance of more than five percent then you will need to crash the project. What happens when the
project manager crashes a project?
A. Project risks will increase.
B. The project will take longer to complete, but risks will diminish.
C. Project costs will increase.
D. The amount of hours a resource can be used will diminish.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are the project manager of the GHE Project. You have identified the following risks with the
characteristics as shown in the following figure: How much capital should the project set aside for the risk
contingency reserve?
A. $142,000
B. $41,750
C. $23,750
D. $232,000
Answer: C

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NO.13 Tracy is the project manager of the NLT Project for her company. The NLT Project is scheduled to last
14 months and has a budget at completion of $4,555,000. Tracy's organization will receive a bonus of
$80,000 per day that the project is completed early up to $800,000. Tracy realizes that there are several
opportunities within the project to save on time by crashing the project work. Crashing the project is what
type of risk response?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Enhance
Answer: D

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NO.14 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response
planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response.
Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk
responses she has created?
A. The level of detail is set by historical information.
B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
C. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
D. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Frank is the project manager of the NHQ project for his company. Frank is working with the project
team, key stakeholders, and several subject matter experts on risks dealing with the new materials in the
project. Frank wants to utilize a risk analysis method that will help the team to make decisions in the
presence of the current uncertainty surrounding the new materials. Which risk analysis approach can
Frank use to create an approach to make decisions in the presence of uncertainty?
A. Monte Carlo Technique
B. Qualitative risk analysis process
C. Quantitative risk analysis process
D. Delphi Technique
Answer: C

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NO.16 What risk identification technique allows participants to identify the project risks and to remain
anonymous?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Surveys
D. Delphi technique
Answer: D

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NO.17 Examine the figure given below.
What will be the expected monetary value of Risk C?
A. -$113,750
B. $175,000 if the risk event actually happens
C. -$175,000
D. -$27,000
Answer: D

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NO.18 Shelly is the project manager of the BUF project for her company. In this project Shelly needs to
establish some rules to reduce the influence of risk bias during the qualitative risk analysis process. What
method can Shelly take to best reduce the influence of risk bias?
A. Group stakeholders according to positive and negative stakeholders and then complete the risk
analysis
B. Determine the risk root cause rather than the person identifying the risk events
C. Establish risk boundaries
D. Establish definitions of the level of probability and impact of risk event
Answer: D

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NO.19 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the
project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with
these risk events?
A. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
B. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
C. The events should be entered into the risk register.
D. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing that the
risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Risk register
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Project document updates
Answer: A

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NO.21 You are the project manager of the KJH Project and are working with your project team to plan the risk
responses. Consider that your project has a budget of $500,000 and is expected to last six months. Within
the KJH Project you have identified a risk event that has a probability of .70 and has a cost impact of
$350,000. When it comes to creating a risk response for this event what is the risk exposure of the event
that must be considered for the cost of the risk response?
A. The risk exposure of the event is $245,000.
B. The risk exposure of the event is $500,000.
C. The risk exposure of the event is $350,000.
D. The risk exposure of the event is $850,000.
Answer: A

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NO.22 John works as a project manager for ABD project. He and his team, are working on the following
activities:
Relative ranking or priority list of project risks
Watchlists of low priority risk
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results
On which of the following processes is John working on?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: A

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NO.23 Virginia is the project manager for her organization. She has hired a subject matter expert to interview
the project stakeholders on certain identified risks within the project. The subject matter expert will assess
the risk event with what specific goal in mind?
A. To determine the level of probability and impact for each risk event
B. To determine the bias of the risk event based on each person interviewed
C. To determine the probability and cost of the risk event
D. To determine the validity of each risk event
Answer: A

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NO.24 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has
offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible
that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project.
Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the
project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?
A. Acceptance
B. Enhance
C. Exploiting
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.25 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large
warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some
time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that
you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete
training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be
known as what term?
A. Team development
B. Benchmarking
C. Cost of conformance to quality
D. Cost-benefits analysis
Answer: C

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NO.26 Tom is the project manager for his organization. In his project he has recently finished the risk
response planning. He tells his manager that he will now need to update the cost and schedule baselines.
Why would the risk response planning cause Tom the need to update the cost and schedule baselines?
A. New or omitted work as part of a risk response can cause changes to the cost and/or schedule
baseline.
B. Risk responses protect the time and investment of the project.
C. Risk responses may take time and money to implement.
D. Baselines should not be updated, but refined through versions.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its
probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before
and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should
be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?
A. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.
B. Harry iscorrect, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.
C. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.
D. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and
quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase
project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would
best help you?
A. Monitor and control project risks
B. Create a risk governance approach
C. Create the project risk register
D. Plan risk responses
Answer: D

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NO.29 There are five outputs of the risk monitoring and controlling process. Which one of the following is NOT
an output of the process?
A. Organizational process assetsupdates
B. Risk register updates
C. Vendor contracts
D. Change requests
Answer: C

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NO.30 You are the project manager of the NHJ project for your company. This project has a budget at
completion of $1,650,000 and you are 60 percent complete. According to the project plan, however, the
project should be 65 percent complete. In this project you have spent $995,000 to reach this point of
completion. There is a risk that this project may be late so you have taken some measures to recover the
project schedule. Management would like to know, based on current performance, what the estimate at
completion for this project will be. What is the estimate at completion?
A. $1,650,000
B. $1,666,667
C. $663,333
D. -$8,333
Answer: B

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