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2014年1月30日星期四

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Exam Code: HP0-W03
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architeture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are typical consequences of insufficient knowledge transfer to the customer for their SAN
environment? (Select two.)
A.unused bandwidth
B.wasted disk space
C.management errors
D.event misinterpretation
E.unnecessary FC data traffic
Correct:C D

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NO.2 Click the Task button. Type the appropriate multi-mode cable length for the given fibre channel
speeds.
A.150 300 500
Correct:A

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NO.3 A customer has asked you to implement VSANs in a C-Series fibre channel switch fabric. What
is a unique feature of VSANs?
A.It allows you to apply different fabric settings in one switch.
B.It allows you to connect different vendor switches to one infrastructure.
C.It allows you to configure more than one management IP address per switch.
D.It allows you to minimize oversubscription on connected ISLs through path load balancing.
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which zoning type must be used in a heterogeneous fabric with M-Series and B-Series switches?
A.VSAN zoning
B.name server zoning
C.fabric address zoning
D.domain-port-area zoning
Correct:B

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NO.5 You are implementing an extended SAN infrastructure between two data centers which are 9km
apart. HP StorageWorks Edge Switch 2/24 is used in this environment. Which ports could be used
to connect the ISL between this data centers?
A.All ports support links for this distance by default.
B.You must enable the extended ISL ports individually.
C.The first four ports can connect a long-distance ISL.
D.Long-distance ISL ports must be unlocked by a license.
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which fabric migration path is shown in the exhibit?
A.meshed to tree
B.cascaded to tree
C.cascaded to meshed
D.meshed to cascaded
Correct:B

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NO.7 Click the Task button. Match the appropriate migration path to the given SAN topologies by
dragging and dropping the boxes. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete
drag and drop items.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1

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NO.8 Where do you install the HP Cluster Extension (CLX)?
A.on the switch as a license
B.on all servers in the cluster
C.on one cluster server at each site
D.on the same server as Command View
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which task must be performed prior to starting a merging process between two switches?
(Select two.)
A.Remove duplicated domain IDs.
B.Set port speed of ISL ports to a fixed value.
C.Disable zoning configuration on both switches.
D.Enable the same passwords on both switches.
E.Check to see if the same feature licenses are installed.
Correct:A E

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NO.10 During the SAN architecture process, the SAN architect must explain to the stakeholders how
the new infrastructure will be realized. Which information should this explanation contain?
A.options that can be installed at a later time
B.current SAN components that will be utilized
C.details about storage and SAN management
D.overview of HP multivendor support services
Correct:B

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Exam Code: HP0-M19
Exam Name: HP (HP Virtual User Generator Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to
record a group of scripts on the same application on his workstation. What can you do to provide
the tester with the correlation rules?
A.You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using
the same Controller machine.
B.Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import
the file into his script.
C.The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester
has access to the script main folder.
D.You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor
file into his Auto Correlation rules.
Correct:D

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NO.2 You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform
their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight
reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Search for 20 flight reservations. A representative
cannot perform a Modify without performing a Search first. Which run logic would satisfy the load
testing goal?
A.Create - 67% Search - 16% Block0 - 17% Search Modify
B.Create - 57% Search - 29% Block0 - 14% Search Modify
C.Create - 57% Search - 29% Modify - 14%
D.Create - 67% Search - 16% Modify - 17%
Correct:A

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NO.3 You want to have your script define a different e-mail address to each user during a registration
process for an e-commerce site, using the following format: testing99999@hp.com. Your script
will execute a maximum of 50 iterations. How can this be accomplished?
A.define a file parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format: testing%05d@hp.com
B.define a unique number parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
C.define a random number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number: 99999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
D.define a sequential number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number 999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?
A.login
B.action
C.vuser_init
D.vuser_end
Correct:C

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NO.5 You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not
shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?
A.enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings
B.manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view
C.add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task
D.select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view
Correct:A

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NO.6 What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual
correlation?
A.Standard
B.Disable Logging
C.Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Correct:D

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NO.7 For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable
this option?
A.General options
B.Playback options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:A

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NO.8 Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?
A.Test settings
B.General options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:D

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NO.9 You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B.
How can this be accomplished?
A.save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Correct:A

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NO.10 What is used, during the debugging process that will pause execution at a specific point in the
script?
A.Step button
B.Compile button
C.Execution Arrow button
D.Toggle Breakpoint button
Correct:D

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Exam Code: HP0-S12
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which products are ProLiant Essentials Value Pack options for configuration management? (Select
three.)
A. Automation Pack
B. Rapid Deployment Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Integrated Lights-Out Advanced Pack
E. Remote Direct Memory Access Pack
Answer: BCD

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NO.2 You need to estimate the run time for a UPS solution for some HP ProLiant servers. Which tool
accomplishes this task?
A. UPS Sizing Tool
B. Power Distribution Utility
C. Rack and Power Manager
D. UPS Enterprise Configurator
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which tasks can be performed on a group of iLO processors by an administrator using the HP
Lights-Out Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. Configure network settings.
B. Team the iLO ports for high availability.
C. Activate the ProLiant Essentials iLO Advanced Pack license keys.
D. Integrate iLO ports in one HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) group.
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which default port number is used with the following link to open HP Systems Insight Manager?
https://<Server_IP_address>:
A. 23
B. 2301
C. 2381
D. 50000
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are the preferred methods for multiserver deployment? (Select two.)
A. SmartStart
B. iLO Scripting
C. Rapid Deployment Pack
D. Insight Control Linux Edition
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which resource gathers information for sizing, recommends tools, and helps to deploy a business
solution?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. Product Bulletin
C. Enterprise Configurator
D. Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.7 From which HP resource can you access a set of tools, e-Services and solution sizers to help plan and
implement a suitable server solution for a customer?
A. HP Support Center
B. ActiveAnswers website
C. Solutions Programs Portal website
D. Channel Services Network website
E. Support and Troubleshooting website
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which management protocols can HP SIM use to automatically discover and identify HP servers,
desktops, clusters, workstations, and portables? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answer: ABE

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NO.9 Which server recovery functions are included with Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)? (Select three.)
A. automatic memory repair
B. recovery from a fan failure
C. automatic hard drive repair
D. recovery from a processor failure
E. recovery from a power supply failure
F. automatic restarting after an operating system failure
Answer: ADF

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NO.10 Which ports must be open when using the HP SIM defaults through a firewall? (Select three.)
A. 22 (SSH)
B. 23 (Telnet)
C. 8160 (Patrol)
D. 137 (NETBIOS)
E. 161 (SNMP Agent)
F. 5989 (HTTPS WMI Mapper)
Answer: AEF

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NO.11 Which statement is correct regarding Transmit Load Balancing (TLB)?
A. TLB teaming has a maximum of four NICs in a team.
B. TLB requires an 802.3ad-capable switch to support TLB teaming.
C. NICs in TLB do not have Network Fault Tolerance (NFT) capability.
D. TLB can receive at 1000Mb/s (theoretical throughput) using four teamed Gigabit Ethernet NICs.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which script is sent securely by CPQLOCFG to iLO over the network?
A. RIBCL
B. RIBdos.vbs
C. HPONCFG
D. CPQLODOS
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which advanced memory protection technology avoids unplanned downtime due to a complete
memory chip failure?
A. Online Spare
B. Standard ECC
C. Advanced ECC
D. Mirrored Memory
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer requires a Linux file server to be accessed by Windows and UNIX workstations. Which
services should be installed to support this requirement? (Select two.)
A. MD
B. NFS
C. NSS
D. SMB
E. CUPS
F. AutoFS
Answer: BD

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NO.15 You are required to provide a UPS solution for a ProLiant DL380 G5 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000.
All units are supplied with fully redundant power supplies (PSUs). The customer's goal is to provide
proper shutdown in the event of an extended power outage. Which guidelines are important as part of
your recommended minimum solution? (Select two.)
A. The UPS should have a minimum of 2 load segments.
B. The UPS should have a minimum of 3 load segments.
C. The UPS should have a minimum of 6 load segments.
D. Provide one UPS of VA rating based on the sizing requirements of the UPS Sizing Tool.
E. Provide one UPS of VA rating equal to at least 1.40 x the total maximum combined power requirements
(watts) of all units.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which features are added to Lights-Out 100i Advanced Pack compared to Lights-Out 100? (Select
three.)
A. control system power
B. embedded KVM over IP
C. boot to remote diskette drive
D. available as option expansion card
E. full remote graphical console capabilities
F. embedded Baseboard Management Controller (BMC)
Answer: BEF

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NO.17 What is a feature of SATA?
A. PIN efficiency is lower than ATA hard drives.
B. SATA host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
C. SATA drives are daisy-chained during configuration.
D. It uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as Serial Attached SCSI.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are asked to investigate a failing hard drive on a ProLiant DL380 G5. When you arrive at the rack,
you notice all the hard drive LEDs are flashing and the server UID light is flashing blue. What is
happening?
A. The array is rebuilding a redundant array using an RDP scripted task. The UID is blinking because
RDP is in control.
B. A disk has failed in a nonredundant array and all logical drives are lost. You must erase all logical drives
and rebuild the server.
C. Someone is accessing the unit using the iLO 2 remote console and is probably using the Array
Configuration Utility to check on the RAID configuration.
D. Someone has requested remote assistance from the HP SIM console and is using the storage agents
to run an identification SNMP task on all the disks in the array.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer wants to connect an MSA30 DB storage solution to a ProLiant DL380 G5 server. Which
Smart Array controller is required to connect both MSA connectors?
A. Smart Array 6i
B. Smart Array 641
C. Smart Array 642
D. Smart Array 6402
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which type of memory protection calculates a 72-bit syndrome for every 64 bits of data?
A. Automatic Parity Checking (APC)
B. Error Checking and Correcting (ECC)
C. Error Detecting and Correction (EDC)
D. Battery Backed Write Cache (BBWC)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M14
Exam Name: HP (HP Project and Portolio Management 7.1 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are the different security layers that you can enforce in a request process? Select three.
A. license
B. field-level restrictions
C. participant permissions
D. access grant security group
E. workflow step permissions
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 What basic information is required to define a field? Select three.
A. token
B. validation
C. attributes
D. storage
E. field prompt
Answer:ABE

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NO.3 If a project manager wished to provide a set of dashboard pages to the project team whereby none of
the team members could change the data or modify any of the pages, which option would be best?
A. self-service module
B. shared module
C. personalize dashboard
D. publish dashboard
Answer: B

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NO.4 The below exhibit of request type intitled3 displays a set of fields in its fields tab. Where were these
fields acquired?
A. fields were added by selecting New at the bottom of the screen
B. fields were inherited from the default Request Header
C. fields were added by selecting the Field Group option
D. fields were added and inherited in Sub-Types tab
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which field attributes can be conditionally set using status dependency rules? Select four.
A. visible
B. editable
C. required
D. confirm
E. reconfirm
Answer: ABCE

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NO.6 What are the main configuration entities that make up a request process implementation? Select three.
A. request workflow
B. request template
C. request header type
D. request form
E. request type
Answer:ACE

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NO.7 Which time sheet statuses are displayed in the TMG-My Time Sheets portlet? Select four.
A. cancel
B. closed
C. approved
D. frozen
E. unsubmitted
Answer: BCDE

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NO.8 Which of the field entries that can be automated by a simple default rule is mandatory?
A. Workflow
B. Assigned To C. Assigned Group
D. None of the field entries are mandatory
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which element of a table rule defines the logic for applying the automated entries in the results
column?
A. dependencies
B. results
C. PL/SQL D. SQL
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which standard portlets are available on a preconfigured portfolio management page? Select two.
A. asset list
B. current portfolio
C. project list
D. portfolio by business objective
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: HP0-662
Exam Name: HP (NonStop Configuration and Planning)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Increasing the number of processors in a system _______.
A. provides fault tolerance for the system consoles
B. allows more disk units in group 1 of the system
C. requires a cold load of the system
D. allows more low-pin processes to run in the system
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which Windows NT services are required when configuring dial-out on TSM? Select TWO.
A. RPC
B. RAS
C. SAP Agent
D. Network Monitor Agent
E. SNMP
Answer: BE

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NO.3 What is a key difference between TSM low-level link and TSM service connection?
A. service connection communicates only with the MSP
B. service connection shows external devices
C. service connection allows firmware updates
D. service connection allows system discovery
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which process needs to be configured to ensure Expand connectivity between two systems?
A. $znet
B. $ncp
C. $expand
D. $zzatm
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which element is typically included in a separate document in response to a Request for Proposal
(RFP)?
A. software details
B. timescales
C. cost breakdown
D. hardware details
Answer: C

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NO.6 To what type of adapter does a default configuration system console connect?
A. E4SA
B. MIOE
C. FESA
D. TRSA
Answer: B

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NO.7 How can the ServerNet connectivity to CPU 5 be displayed in SCF?
A. INFO SERVERNET 5
B. STATUS SERVERNET $ZSNET
C. INFO SERVERNET $ZSNET
D. STATUS SERVERNET 5
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which items would you expect to see on a network topology diagram? Select TWO.
A. tape devices
B. IP addresses
C. routers
D. disk mapping
E. cable specifications
Answer: BC

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NO.9 DSM/SCM can be used to control customer software. Which program is used to prepare the
software?
A. CNFGINFO
B. ZPHIRNM
C. INITENV
D. INITSTAT
Answer: A

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NO.10 In which volume and subvolume do the hardware configuration files reside?
A. $system.system
B. $system.sysnn
C. $system.zsysconf
D. $dsmscm.system
Answer: C

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NO.11 What allows a customer to track open problem cases through the Web?
A. Scout for NonStop servers
B. Express Notice
C. NonStop Technical Library (NTL)
D. Total Web Support (TWS)
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which tool simplifies the task of migrating a database from many small disks to a smaller number of
large disks?
A. MEDIACOM
B. ASAP
C. SMF
D. MAPPER
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which product can be used to project transaction growths into a resource upgrade timeline?
A. GPA
B. ASAP
C. NSX
D. TCM
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which product requires a manual firmware update using TSM?
A. FESA
B. E4SA
C. SWAN
D. TRSA
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which utility is used for routine tape management operations?
A. TAPECOM
B. NSKCOM
C. MEDIACOM
D. TMFCOM
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which tool has replaced Timbuktu for remote support?
A. Timbuk3
B. Remote Copy
C. Carbon Copy
D. PC Anywhere
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the filename of the SCSI boot code for the G06.08 release?
A. I1000
B. IBOOT
C. I2000
D. ISCSI
Answer: B

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NO.18 How many internal disk SCSI controllers are on a PMF CRU?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which prediction is NOT produced by TCM?
A. number of processors required
B. number of logical disk volumes
C. network response time
D. processor and disk utilization
Answer: C

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NO.20 Assuming no I/O enclosures, how many electrical branch circuits are needed to provide power fault
tolerance for a six-processor S7x000 system?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-918
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

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NO.2 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

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NO.4 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

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NO.5 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

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NO.6 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

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NO.7 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

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NO.8 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

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NO.9 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

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NO.10 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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NO.12 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

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NO.13 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

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NO.14 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.15 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

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NO.16 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

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NO.17 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

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NO.18 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

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NO.19 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

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Exam Code: HP0-J17
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing the HP StorageWorks EVA4400)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 When can you start to create the first Vdisk using Command View EVA?
A. after a host is created
B. after storage system initialization
C. after multipath software is activated
D. during the storage system initialization
Answer: B

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NO.3 When is the first disk group (default disk group) created?
A. after storage system initialization
B. during the initialization of the storage system
C. during the installation of Command View EVA
D. manually, before the system can be initialized
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which user group membership enables the user to access Command View EVA?
A. EVA Admin
B. HP Manager
C. SAN Administrator
D. HP Storage Admin
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is an interconnect requirement for the EVA4400?
A. The SAN switch must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
B. All components in the SAN must run at 4Gb/s.
C. The direct connected switch must run at 4Gb/s.
D. All components in the SAN must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where must the multipath software be installed to enable multipathing?
A. on all hosts in the SAN
B. on the storage system
C. on the dedicated management server
D. on all hosts that require multipath access to the EVA
Answer: D

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NO.7 What can you use to provide a Fibre Channel SAN extension over an IP network in an EVA4400 CA
solution?
A. MPX110 IP Distance Gateway
B. IP connector on the controllers
C. only an 8Gb Fibre Channel switch
D. any Fibre Channel switch, provided it has an extended fabric license
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which SMB customer business needs are best addressed by the EVA4400?
A. growing budgets, high availability, rapid data growth
B. shrinking budgets, disaster tolerance, rapid data growth
C. easy configuration, non-stop performance, growing budgets
D. ease of management, shrinking budgets, non-stop performance
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A

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NO.10 How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-D02
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Insight Dynamics-VSE Soluions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer uses HP Performance Management Pack (PMP) in a ProLiant environment and
wants to use the information for historical views in an HP Insight Dynamics - VSE solution. Which
statement is true about this environment?
A.PMP data cannot be imported into Capacity Advisor.
B.Data must be imported by PMP and exported by Capacity Advisor.
C.Export and import of PMP data is performed by one Capacity Advisor command.
D.An OpenView Performance Agent must be installed to export and import PMP data.
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which data center challenges does HP Virtual Connect address? (Select three.)
A.too many cables
B.too many switches
C.too many protocols
D.too many administrators
E.too much heat generation
F.too much power consumption
Correct:A B D

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NO.3 When using HP Rapid Deployment Pack with HP Insight Dynamics - VSE, which network
configuration should you recommend to the customer?
A.Create a separate physical network.
B.Merge all servers in one LAN subnet.
C.Create a VLAN for server deployment.
D.Use Virtual Connect Ethernet Modules for communication.
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a Central Management Server (CMS) where HP Insight Dynamics -
VSE will be installed?
A.A Windows CMS can manage all currently shipping HP platforms.
B.An HP-UX CMS can manage HP ProLiant ML/DL servers and HP BladeSystems.
C.A Windows CMS can manage HP ProLiant ML/DL servers, HP BladeSystems, and HP Integrity servers.
D.An HP-UX CMS can manage HP ProLiant ML/DL servers, HP BladeSystems, and HP Integrity servers.
Correct:C

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NO.5 What information does HP Capacity Advisor gather from target systems?
A.CPU speed, amount of memory installed, and disk capacity
B.CPU utilization, memory utilization, disk capacity, and network utilization
C.CPU utilization, memory utilization, and number of possible virtual machines
D.CPU utilization, memory utilization, disk I/O, network I/O, and power utilization
Correct:D

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NO.6 What is required to perform online logical server moves with HP Insight Dynamics - VSE?
A.SAN environment
B.separate licenses
C.dedicated network
D.identical hardware
Correct:A

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NO.7 How is HP Virtual Server Environment (VSE) on Integrity Servers licensed?
A.per core
B.per server
C.per workload
D.per migration
E.per virtualized system
Correct:A

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NO.8 A customer is interested in an HP Insight Dynamics - VSE solution. You are presenting the HP
solution, including all service options. Which HP Systems Insight Manager plug-in provides a
comprehensive "phone home to HP" capability?
A.Open Service Event Manager
B.Web-Based Enterprise Services
C.HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition
D.HP Service Essentials Remote Support Pack
Correct:D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. While you are performing a proof-of-concept for your customer, the
system administrator asks you about the 5-star rating and the definition of room for growth. What
is the minimum headroom available for the single workload allocated to the system in bay 5
shown in the exhibit?
A.25%
B.50%
C.75%
D.90%
Correct:C

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NO.10 You are consulting about an HP Insight Dynamics - VSE solution for a customer, who
emphasizes power and cooling regulation in the data center. How is the power estimation formula
calibrated in Insight Dynamics - VSE? (Select two.)
A.user-specified values
B.HP Power and Rack Manager definitions
C.HP Insight Power Manager utilization traces
D.user-defined HP Systems Insight Manager thresholds
E.power utilization templates that can be downloaded from the HP website
Correct:A C

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Exam Code: HP0-S19
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What should you consider when planning for cluster (active/active) failover?
A. capacity of shared storage
B. failover resource requirements on the surviving node
C. data transfer speed of shared storage
D. data integrity between both nodes
E. heartbeat communications speed between nodes
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer has installed a new server into their environment. When is the best time to perform the
initial performance baseline?
A. during peak daily operation
B. during idle periods of the system
C. during normal daily operation
D. during annual peak operation time
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants to purchase an MSA storage solution that meets the following requirements:
Provides end-to-end SAS host modular flexible platform in a high capacity 2U disk drive external direct
storage system
Uses both Small Form Factor (SFF) SAS and SATA disk drives
Supports cascading to a second MSA for future expansion
Hot plug compatibility
RAID 6 with ADG
Supports dual port SAS drives
Which solutions would you recommend? (Select two.)
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA60
E. MSA70
Answer: DE

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NO.4 A junior system administrator new to Linux asks you which tool to use to view processor utilization
information on a ProLiant server running SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10. Which tool do you
recommend?
A. monitor
B. topmon
C. vmstat
D. cpustat
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which utility does HP recommend to measure disk I/O performance in HP ProLiant servers?
A. Microsoft performance monitor
B. Array Diagnostic Utility
C. IO meter
D. SQL stress test
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Performance Management Pack (PMP) provides tools to assist in monitoring server performance. Which
tool is shown in the exhibit?
A. Offline Analysis
B. Online Analysis
C. Static Analysis Report
D. CSV File Generator
Answer: D

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NO.7 A remote branch office has a DL580 G5 Server reporting a memory error on the Windows system
event log. The server has four 1GB memory DIMMs. What is the quickest way to tell which specific
memory module has failed?
A. Open up the server and replace the memory modules one by one.
B. Run the online HP Insight Diagnostic Utility.
C. Check the Systems Insight Display.
D. Run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU).
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which SMS utility enables you to remove an HP-specific SMS database and WMI elements installed by
the Setup Wizard?
A. hpSync
B. hpScan
C. hpSMSTool
D. SMSITHU
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the threshold Windows sets for pages/sec to represent a memory bottleneck situation?
A. 2
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
E. 200
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which function can HP Insight Diagnostics Offline Edition perform that the Online Edition cannot?
A. scheduling of survey capturesB. printing of multiple copies of the diagnostic results
C. testing of all ProLiant Server subsystems
D. testing of database connectivity
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of HP ProLiant host systems that you can connect to an MSA2000fc?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.12 When a second processor is added to a DL380 G5 Server running Linux, a kernel panic occurs. What
is the easiest way to correct the problem? (Select two.)
A. Reinstall the Linux operating system.
B. Replace the second processor.
C. Replace the DL380 G5 Server.
D. Swap the location of the two processors so the lower stepping processor is installed in processor
socket 1.
E. Upgrade the system ROM.
Answer: DE

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NO.13 Why would you use the HP ProLiant Essentials Virtual Machine Management Pack if you already
manage your virtual machines with another product such as VMware VirtualCenter? (Select three.)
A. It uses fewer resources on the Central Management Server.
B. It ties into VirtualCenter and allows for actions based on predictive failures.
C. It ties directly into HP SIM to provide a single management view.
D. It manages VMs from MS, Citrix and VMware.E. It is available at no cost.
Answer: BCD

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NO.14 When installing HP Insight Integration for OpenView NNM, which primary processes are installed?
(Select two.)
A. CPQWEB
B. CPQDIS
C. CPQTRAPD
D. CPQMAP
E. CPQRILOE
Answer: BD

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NO.15 You are planning to use the HP Essentials Server Migration Pack to execute a Virtual-to-Virtual (V2V)
migration from one virtual machine host server to a new virtual machine host. HP SIM displays
the following status icons in the VM column for each machine:
Which action must be taken to allow the migration to proceed?
A. Install the VMM Agent on the source virtual machine host server.
B. Apply the VMM Pack license to the target virtual machine host server.
C. Install the VMM Agent on the target virtual machine host server.
D. Apply the VMM Pack license to the source virtual machine host server.
Answer: B

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NO.16 ProLiant Essentials Server Migration Pack - Physical to ProLiant can migrate which file types? (Select
two.)
A. FAT32
B. EXT3
C. VMFS
D. NTFS
E. CIFS
Answer: AD

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NO.17 You are planning a disaster recovery plan. Under optimal system configuration, what is the average
time taken for an array expansion?
A. 45 minutes per gigabyte
B. 30 minutes per gigabyte
C. 15 minutes per gigabyte
D. 5 minutes per gigabyte
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which types of migration can HP ProLiant Essentials Server Migration Pack support? (Select three.)
A. Virtual to Physical (V2P)
B. Virtual to Virtual (V2V)
C. Physical to Integrity (P2I)
D. Physical to Virtual (P2V)
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Your customer wants to implement a High-Performance Computing (HPC) environment consisting of
AMD Opteron processor-based ProLiant servers. The customer wants it to run a Linux OS and
take advantage of the HP InfiniBand cluster interconnect. Which cluster solution meets these
requirements?
A. HP ProLiant Cluster F200
B. HP ProLiant Cluster F500
C. HP Cluster Platform 3000
D. HP Cluster Platform 4000
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which hardware support services are offered by HP Care Packs? (Select two.)
A. Critical Service
B. 8-hour Call-to-Repair
C. 6-hour Same Business Day
D. Next Business Day
E. Return Service
Answer: DE

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