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2013年12月12日星期四

EMC certification E20-405 exam training programs

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NO.1 When are the binding rules for a virtual document actually applied?
A. When the virtual document is saved
B. When IDfSysObject.asVirtualDocument() is called
C. When IDfVirtualDocumentNode.getChildCount() is called
D. When IDfVirtualDocument.getRootNode() is called
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you provide an interface for a custom object type that gets instantiated using DFC methods
such as getObject()?
A. extend IDfDocument
B. extend IDfSysObject
C. create a TBO with an interface for the custom object type
D. create an SBO with an interface for the custom object type
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which interface declares the save()method?
A. IDfSysObject
B. IDfTypedObject
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfPersistentObject
Answer: D

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NO.4 What happens when you fail to close open query collections in a DFC application?
A. Performance for other users will be impaired.
B. Eventually, no more queries can be executed.
C. Garbage collection will release appropriate resources.
D. The session will disconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the minimum required components to extend custom object type behavior?
A. TBO and SBO
B. TBO and DFC
C. SBO and DFC
D. SBO and Web Services Framework
Answer: B

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NO.6 add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
D. 1.create a new user as a consumer
2. designate the user as a registry user
3. encrypt the password
4. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
Answer: C

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3. You have a working registered table called "CompanyList" with one string column called
"CompanyName" with one row value "EMC."
What is the output of the following statements?
A. null
B. EMC
C. CompanyName
D. A DfException is thrown.
Answer: D

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4. Which statement is true?
A. You use the IDfClient.getQuery method to obtain an IDfQuery object.
B. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfCollection.
C. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfEnumeration.
D. The execute method of an IDfQuery object only requires the repository name as a parameter.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given an SBO called com.mycompany.ICreditScore and the following statement:
newModule(repositoryName, "com.mycompany.ICreditScore", sessionMgr)
What does the statement do?
A. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
B. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
C. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
D. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Connection Brokers?
A. A Connection Broker is not required in order to establish a session between DFC application and
Content Server.
B. To perform IP translation through a firewall, you need to have two Connection Brokers.
C. Load balancing across Connection Brokers is not natively supported.
D. When you shut down a Content Server, it automatically shuts down its primary Connection Broker.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is true about Documentum Web Services Framework (WSF)?
A. All business objects can be exposed as Services using WSF.
B. Currently WSF does not support secured SOAP transfer.
C. WSF does not require UDDI to discover Web services.
D. Currently WSF only supports J2EE clients.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where are the credentials located for the BOF's client dynamic delivery mechanism?
A. dfc.properties
B. dmcl.ini
C. bof.properties
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which is NOT a valid interface?
A. IDfCabinet
B. IDfFolder
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfGroup
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which interface can be used when creating repository objects that have content?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfDocument
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfContentObject
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which DFC interface provides a getCheckoutDirectory() method that returns the local checkout
directory?
A. IDfClient
B. IDfClientX
C. IDfSession
D. IDfClientRegistry
Answer: D

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NO.14 How do you manually configure the DFC global registry?
A. 1.add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
B. 1.encrypt the password
2. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
C. 1.activate the registry user
2. change the password

NO.15 What kind of module is used to create a Documentum Web Service?
A. Type-based Business Object
B. Service-based Business Object
C. Web-based Business Object
D. Custom Module
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which SBO method signature is valid for conversion to a web service?
A. void setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
B. boolean uploadConfiguration(java.io.File myFile)
C. boolean setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
D. int countDocuments(IDfSession sess, String qualification)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which code should you use to create a copy of the current object and place it in CopyCab?
A. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.savelock();
B. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.saveAsNew( false );
C. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
D. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
Answer: B

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NO.18 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
How do you dynamically add host2 as additional Connection Broker, such that Docbase A and Docbase B
are listed as available repositories?
A. change "host = host1" to "host = host1, host2" in dmcl.ini
B. execute IDfDocbrokerClient.addDocbroker("host2",1489);
C. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_BACKUP_1] host=host2 port=1489
D. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_SECONDARY] host=host2 port=1489
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the correct hierarchy in the Documentum object model?
A. dm_folder inherits from dm_cabinet, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
B. dm_sysobject inherits from dm_document.
C. dm_document inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
D. dm_category inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statement is true about Trusted Content Services (TCS)?
A. TCS is not required to create ApplicationPermission entries.
B. TCS is not required to evaluate ApplicationPermission entries.
C. TCS is not required to delete ApplicationPermission entries.
D. TCS validates and enforces application permissions at the server level.
Answer: B

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NO.21 A TBO has been created for a custom object type called my_loan_application. The TBO relies on a
dependant SBO to calculate credit scores. The TBO is only invoked by the Webtop application.
Where does the SBO execute?
A. Global registry machine
B. Content Server JVM
C. Application Server JVM
D. the client browser's JVM
Answer: C

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NO.22 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
What is the output for the code, assuming you are using a session established to Docbase C from host2?
A. null
B. Docbase C
C. Docbase B Docbase C
D. Docbase A Docbase B Docbase C
Answer: C

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NO.23 A TBO has been created for the custom object type called my_loan_application. If the following
statement is executed in a Webtop custom component, where is the TBO executed?
IDfSysObject loanApp = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject("my_loan_application");
A. The TBO executes on the client browser's JVM.
B. The TBO executes on the Global Registry computer.
C. The TBO executes on the application server JVM.
D. The TBO execuctes on the Content Server JVM.
Answer: C

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NO.24 encrypt the password

NO.25 How should you deploy a TBO to the respository?
A. Using IDfClient.newModule() only
B. Using Documentum Application Installer only
C. Using both Documentum Application Installer and IDfClient.newModule()
D. Using Documentum Application Installer, IDfClient.newModule() and IDfClient.newService()
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which statement is true about the object model?
A. dmr_content is not a sub-type of dm_sysobject although sysobject contents are stored as dmr_content
objects.
B. dm_acl objects are stored in the System cabinet.
C. Not all sysobjects can have associated permissions.
D. Virtual documents are objects of type dm_relation that describe a parent/child relationship between
objects.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Click the <Exhibit> button.
Which interface is missing in the diagram?
A. IDfFolder
B. IDfCabinet
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfNonPersistentObject
Answer: C

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NO.28 Given the following architecture:
To disable full-text search for end users of Webtop, on which computer should you update the
dfc.properties file?
A. server1 only
B. app1 only
C. both server1 and local1
D. both app1 and local1
Answer: B

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NO.29 A custom object type called my_loan_application is created with a custom repeating attribute called
borrower_names. The data type of the attribute is String.
Which interface declares a method to update borrower_names?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfType
C. IDfValueAssistance
D. IDfCustomObject
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which statement is true?
A. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from the current session.
B. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the current user.
C. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the super user.
D. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from a new session.
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

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NO.2 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

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NO.8 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

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NO.12 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

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NO.14 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

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NO.15 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

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NO.16 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 206 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

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NO.2 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

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NO.3 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

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NO.4 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

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NO.8 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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NO.10 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.2 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.4 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.9 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.10 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.11 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.12 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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NO.13 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.15 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
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NO.1 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.11 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.12 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.13 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.16 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.17 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.19 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer has two EMC VNX, one at the primary site and the other at a DR site located 100 km away.
The WAN connection between sites is a 100 Mb/s dark fiber link with 4 ms latency.
A previous storage administrator configured the pool LUNs for the file system on thin LUNs. The file
system is growing at a rate of 500 GB per week and is on a VDM. The new storage administrator reports
performance issues with the file system.
What is the most likely reason for the performance issue?
A. Thin LUNs are used for the file system.
B. The WAN link should be upgraded to an eLAN.
C. The VNX system requires an upgrade.
D. The file system has too many concurrent users connected.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are planning a CIFS DR solution for two existing EMC VNX. Each VNX has dual Control Stations.
Each VNX is also configured for a RecoverPoint protection solution on other VNX LUNs that are non-file
related. What recommendation would you give the customer concerning the CIFS DR solution?
A. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems before
configuring VNX Replicator
B. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems after
configuring VNX Replicator
C. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator,
and then configure IP aliasing on the destination VNX system Control Stations after configuring VNX
Replicator.
D. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator
and use RecoverPoint to provide protection of the source VNX Control Stations to the destination VNX.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has a CIFS DR solution with EMC VNX using a One-to-Many replication topology. The
customer asks you to explain replication behavior under the following conditions:
Production site failover or switchover to a DR site
Replication start and reverse is performed
What would you advise the customer?
A. The original production site remains a One-to-Many replication source for the other remaining DR sites.
B. All remaining replications sessions to the other DR sites are suspended.
C. The original production site goes into cascade mode to remain a replication source for the remaining
DR sites.
D. The DR site becomes the replication source for the remaining DR sites and the original production site
is marked as invalid.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has two EMC VNX configured to replicate between sites. Each VNX has dual Control
Stations. The primary Control Station at the source site fails at 6 p.m. and reboots. At 8 p.m., the customer
completes DR testing and observes CIFS replication does not failover to the target site VNX. Why does
CIFS replication not failover to the target VNX during the DR test?
A. The control station of the primary VNX should have been failed back.
B. The control station of the second VNX should have been failed over.
C. The control station of the primary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
D. The control station of the secondary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has a Windows-only environment connected to an EMC VNX for File at their main campus
site. The customer plans to install a new EMC VNX at a remote branch office site. The new VNX will be
used to implement a DR solution for their main campus VNX using several deduplicated file systems
shared and available to clients via CIFS.
Which solution do you recommend to the customer?
A. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
B. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
C. Use VNX SAN Copy to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from the
main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
D. Use VNX MirrorView/A to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from
the main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX.
The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in
Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?
A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system administrator wants to migrate medical-imaging data stored on an EMC VNX. The host
connects to the VNX via iSCSI. The IP SAN infrastructure has recently been updated to support 1 Gb/10
GB switching. The system administrator wants to maximize data transfer performance. What would you
recommend?
A. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 9000 byte frame.
B. Use a 4 KB memory page size.
C. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 2400 byte frame.
D. Increase the write-aside value.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block.
The customer reports NFS-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput via NFSv4 versus
the FC-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. I/O size
C. Host Patch levels
D. NFS version
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer requests a performance review of their EMC VNX before FAST Cache is implemented.
You notice a dedicated LUN has a write size of 4 KB, and the disks are performing writes of 8 KB. What is
causing this behavior?
A. Coalescing
B. Pre-fetching
C. Flushing
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer requires an asynchronous DR solution for an NFS-only client environment. The customer
wants the solution to be simple to implement. It was recommended they create a single NIS domain, and
use several NIS servers to provide centralized authentication to the NFS clients at both the source and
destination sites. The customer asks you whether they should consider using VDMs in this environment.
What do you advise?
A. VDMs would offer no advantages to this environment.
B. VDMs allow VMWare integration of NFS service environments.
C. VDMs eliminate the need for Usermapper in NFS environments.
D. VDMs allow for assignment of specific CPUs to a NFS server.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer plans to connect ESXi 5.0 hosts to a new EMC VNX array. They want to take advantage of
the hardware-assisted locking feature in VAAI. Which is a feature of hardware-assisted locking?
A. Locking at the block level of a logical unit
B. Locking the LUN instead of the block level
C. Accessing a block from multiple hosts at the same time
D. Automatic enabling of safe data caching
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer has an Oracle ASM database on an EMC VNX with FAST Suite enabled. They observe
intermittent performance degradation due to momentary data hot spots caused by bursty transaction rates.
What recommendation would you make to help alleviate these hot spots?
A. Enable Fast VP on the ASM LUNs
B. Modify the ASM rebalance power priority
C. Enable Fast Cache on the ASM LUNs
D. Disable ASM storage management
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features
for their existing DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically
configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯
are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior.?
A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A client has an EMC VNX configured with four storage ports, four 15-drive DAEs (disk array
enclosures) and a total of forty drives (20 NL-SAS and 20 SAS drives). The client is using RAID 5 (4+1)
RAID groups with a traditional LUN configuration.
What is the recommended SAS LCC port configuration for optimal performance?
A. Distribute drives evenly across all ports
B. Distribute drives on all odd ports
C. Distribute drives on all even ports
D. Distribute drives on a single port
Answer: A

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NO.15 A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?
A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block and each host generates the same size I/O.
The customer reports the FC-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput than the
NFS-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. Host Patch levels
C. Ethernet Network
D. NFS version
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator is attempting to vMotion a VM from one vSphere ESXi 5.0 host to another. The ESXi
servers are connected to three VNX arrays on the fabric. The vMotion fails. What is the most likely
reason?
A. RDMs are attached to the VM with different host LUN numbers on the ESXi servers.
B. There are active SnapView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
C. RDMs are in physical compatibility mode and not eligible for vMotion.
D. There are active MirrorView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Click on the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A SQL database requires 1,000 I/O per second with 85% reads and 15% writes. If RAID 1/0 is used, what
is the total number of spindles required to generate the required I/O per second?
A. Ten 10K drives
B. Four 15K drives
C. One Flash drive
D. Fourteen 7.2K drives
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMC VNX.
Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and
replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions
preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?
A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer recently purchased an EMC VNX to be connected to four ESXi 5.0 hosts via FC. Five of the
associated VMs (virtual machines) are running SQL Server 2008 R2. To avoid contention, the customer
wants the VM's database and log drives on separate datastores.
Which ESXi 5.0 feature would satisfy this requirement?
A. Network interface card teaming
B. Virtual Machine Anti-Affinity
C. Raw Device Mappings
D. VMDK Affinity
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-554
Exam Name: EMC (Isilon Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Your customer purchased an Isilon cluster with eight X400 nodes for Home Directories. Your
follow-up discussions have uncovered an opportunity to expand the cluster to support the Legal
Department. As you prepare to complete the Workflow Profile Document, you meet with the
customer to discuss data protection.
Which key areas should you address?
A.Default cluster protection level Additional directory level protections Snapshots and replication
B.WORM requirements Network ports for replication Snapshots for user restores
C.Default cluster protection level Backup windows and processes Concurrency of user access
D.Protocols (SMB, NFS, FTP , HTTP , HDFS) Authentication and Directory Services Performance and
latency concerns
Answer: A

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NO.2 You set up a meeting to gather information on a new project with the IT manager and plan to
use a workflow profile assessment (WPA) to document the requirements.
Why is it recommended to talk to as many stakeholders as possible?
A. Completing this document gives sales a list of who the stakeholders are at customer site.
B. Helps downstream personnel, such as implementation and delivery, to have a clearer
understanding of the requirements.
C. Using workflow profile enables sales to take this information to EMC consulting for review to
validate the configuration.
D. Using the WPA tool will give you the best "big picture" to see things such as block size, de-dupe,
file size and volumes.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are reviewing an opportunity with a trusted advisor. You both discover gaps in the initial
solution design.
Each iterative discussion with the customer helps you define the solution better. The documents
produced capture the customer's requirements.
What else needs to occur to refine the sizing considerations?
A. Complete your Solution Design Document and forward to EMC consulting.
B. Validate the Workflow Profile Assessment and test the solution against your findings.
C. Review you assumptions and ask the customer what business issue you're solving.
D. Provide the CIO with the findings and gain commitment to a Proof of Concept.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What key considerations should be kept in mind when designing a 300TB solution?
A.Workflow management Defining class of service Time of day services RPO and RTO Data retention
and backup
B.Defining class of service Time of day services ROI and TCO Data retention and backup
C.SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots Space for snapshots
D.Always include 2% SSD SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots InsightIQ
Answer: A

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NO.5 When designing Isilon solutions, which issue should you pay special attention to?
A. Create a workflow document
B. Conduct stakeholder interviews
C. Follow all SSD sizing rules
D. Meet customer expectations
Answer: D

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NO.6 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What applications access this storage?
B. What type of racks are in your datacenter?
C. Are you using a KVM to access your storage?
D. How many NICs do your clients have?
Answer: A

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NO.7 When conducting high-level interviews with stakeholders of a project, what are the key
questions that should be asked?
A.How much usable storage are you looking for? What client OS will access this storage? Which
applications will access this storage?
B.Which backup application is in use today?
What is your change rate?
How many clients will connect to the cluster?
C.What does your network architecture look like?
Do you have existing NAS infrastructure?
Do you have 10Gb or 1Gb ethernet?
Which applications will access this storage?
D.Who are the application owners?
How much usable storage is needed?
What applications will be accessing the storage?
How many users are in your Active Directory?
Answer: A

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NO.8 When designing Isilon solutions, what issues should you pay special attention to?
A.Avoid being too enthusiastic over the technology Balance technical and business requirements
Provide options Design to meet customer expectations
B.Workflow Document Solutions Document Application types Data strategy
C.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Provide options Practical vs.
theoretical implementations
D.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Downstream hand-off Design
to meet customer expectations
Answer: A

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NO.9 You have had several discussions with your customer in the processor design industry. They
have stated that they want a Scale-Out NAS platform for their design environment. Their most
significant responses were "We have 125 design engineers accessing large diagrams and we need
high throughput to support them. Can we also get the highest performance available? We need to
stay ahead of our competitors." Other areas you discussed were their data retention policies and
workflow after the chip design is completed. They plan to archive the design files but the files must
stay on line.
What is your initial node recommendation?
A. A-Series nodes for the active diagrams and X-Series nodes for the archives.
B. S-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL Series nodes for the archives
C. X-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL 400 nodes for the archives
D. X-Series nodes with SSD for the active diagrams and NL nodes for the archives
Answer: B

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NO.10 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What application are you using to create directories?
B. Is your datacenter ISO9001 compliant?
C. What protocols are accessing your NAS?
D. How many users are in your Directory Services?
Answer: C

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